Abstract
This paper attempts to answer the question why I. Kant did regard "the sublime in nature" (Ⅴ 256) as a main subject of his theory of the sublime in Critique of the Power of Judgment (1790). "The sublime in nature" does not play an important role in many modern theories of the sublime (for example, E. Burke's, F. Schiller's etc.) except for Kant's theory because they mainly discussed the sublime of in fine art. Although Kant knew this tendency of such theories at that time, why did he try to elucidate the very concept of "the sublime in nature"? What kinds of meanings does "the sublime in nature" has?
https://ror.org/02kn6nx58 
