It has generally been believed that Mod. St.E. [a:] before [f, s, θ] and before r or r and a consonant developed from ME. a [a] in this way: a>[ae]>[ae:]+[a:]>[a:]. This process of development, however, seems to me to be the least plausible one. The reasons are as follows: (I) It is safe to assume that there existed in some earlier Mod. E. period [ae] or [ae:] for a before [f, s, θ] in London dialect which ultimately became Standard English, but there is no evidence whatever of the existence of this sound in London dialect from the end of the 15th century to the middle of the following century, during which period ME. a in an independent position had been fronted to [ae]. (2) For a before r or r and a consonant, there is no conclusive evidence, if any, of the existence of [ae] or [ae:] in London dialect before the second half of the i 7th century. (3) And what is most important, there is conclusive or nearly conclusive evidence showing that there had existed [a:] or [a:] for a before [f, s, θ, r] as early as the second half of the 16th century. Therefore, if we accept the current view, we must assume that such a complicated sound change as fronting, lengthening and then retracting was accomplished within less than one hundred years. This is too much in too short a time. It is chiefly on this score that I find it impossible to accept the current view. Then, what can be a more plausible line of development? I think there are two which may be more reasonable. One is the line of development Prof. Kokeritz assumes. In his view, Mod. St.E.[a:] before [f, s, θ] comes from nothern dialect, which did not front ME.a to [ae] but retained it. as [a] and the one before r or r and a consonant is a direct lengthening of ME.a. This can be plausible enough. The other is the way in which ME. a not only before r or r and a consonant but also before [f, s, θ] was never fronted to [ae], but was directly lengthened to [a:] in London dialect, whence Mod. St.E.[a:] developed. When we take this view, some explanation is naturally required of [ae] or [ae:] for a before [f, s, θ] in London dialect in the earlier period, for which there is conclusive rhyme or jingle evidence. The explanation is that it came from southern dialect, where a before these consonants is generally pronounced [ae] or [ae:] even nowadays. I believe this line of development can be at probable as the one Prof. Kokeritz assumes.
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